Eric Nicholas K's answer to genevieve's Secondary 4 A Maths Singapore question.
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Good evening Cheryl! Here are my workings for the second one. As long as the integral is in the form f’(x) multiplied by [f(x)]^n, the whole thing integrates to [f(x)]^(n + 1) divided by (n + 1).
Date Posted:
4 years ago
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