Lim Jia Earn's answer to Dunelm's Secondary 4 A Maths Singapore question.
Thank you.
Hi can I ask why is π/4 on top of π/2 for integration? Isn't π/2 should be at the top as it is from π/4 to π/2?
Because the area would be negative, by flipping the limits its essentially “making the area positive”. If you would like to integrate as normal (Having lower limit below and upper limit above), then just remember to modulus ;)
Ok Thank you.
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