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Hint : sec(x-a) = sec(a-x)
This is because sec(x-a) = 1/cos(x-a)
cos(x-a) = cos(a-x) since cosine -> adjacent/hypotenus (same for both x-a and a-x)
Your answer can be found on integral calculators on Google but this hint should make the question straightforward for you to solve it
This is because sec(x-a) = 1/cos(x-a)
cos(x-a) = cos(a-x) since cosine -> adjacent/hypotenus (same for both x-a and a-x)
Your answer can be found on integral calculators on Google but this hint should make the question straightforward for you to solve it
Date Posted:
6 years ago