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International Baccalaureatte | Maths HL
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Let n be a fixed positive integer...
Date Posted: 6 years ago
Views: 438
What does that "1 £ a, b £ n" mean?
I think it's 1 =< a,b =< n .
So the question is talking about the subset of Farey sequence (minus the first term of 0/1) .
If we understand how Farey sequence is expanded for successive values of n, then we can apply that understanding and use mathematical induction to prove bc-ad=1 .
So the question is talking about the subset of Farey sequence (minus the first term of 0/1) .
If we understand how Farey sequence is expanded for successive values of n, then we can apply that understanding and use mathematical induction to prove bc-ad=1 .
Thanks Mr. Mark, for sharing. Will do some search and study on that. Cheers.
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done
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clear
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This is not a very magnetically correct way to prove something. But the argument is clear. Do share here when you have the answer. Cheers!
Date Posted:
6 years ago
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