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secondary 3 | A Maths
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Can someone explain to me how does the coeff of x^2 > 0 and f(x) > 0 lead to there having no real roots? I stared and read that sentence 20 times and still dont get it. Pls help
Date Posted: 6 months ago
Views: 134
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Hope this helps
Date Posted:
6 months ago
Ohh so when f(x) > 0, there wont be any real roots because the curve will never cut thru the x axis?
Yes basically f(x) is the y coordinate. F(x) >0 means all y coordinates >0, thus the curve does not intersect with the x axis
OHHH okay thank you!!!
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